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This became a more interesting question than anticipated.

It was assumed that all respondents would have been told by a physician or someone calling from a lab perhaps, that they had been diagnosed with this illness. When did that happen?

But in responding, 39 (28.89%) of respondents skipped this question. Left it blank. That's different than responding with a date that was incorrect, as we saw in the previous question.

If they were never told on a specific date that they have this illness, never given a diagnosis, who decided that they have "long-term" COVID-19. How was that decided? Pehaps, does this subgroup of respondents when becoming ill, make it a point to avoid contact with the healthcare system altogether.

And yet, some report poritive and negative tests for SARS-CoV-2.

When compared with the subgroup (96, 71.1%) that furnished a date of diagnosis (DoDx) there are similarities but also other differences besides this date.

These will be presented subsequently, but we mention here that this group had significant differences in reported: test results, illness duration, degree of physical limitation, number of habitual physical symptoms before becoming ill, number of physical symptoms on the day they responded, and the number of organ systems involved with their illness.

These respondents have helped to identify several subgroups or variants of patients presenting with "long-term" COVID-19.

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